If all the events that have occurred between the supposed beginning of the world to now where part of God's plan, it doesn't seem to make sense that certain events would have been a part of his plan. Take for instance Noah's flood. Genesis 6:6 SAS that "The LORD was sorry that He had made man on the earth, and He was grieved in His heart." If all events of a part of God's plan, and God knew what was in his plan(which would only make sense), then why would he plan an event that would cause him to destroy his creation and then grieve? A Christian friend of mine said "Well we had disobeys gods commands, and thus he had to destroy us" But, since all events are part of his plan, doesn't that mean that he would have had to plan an event where we would disobey his commands? If he had had this plan from the beginning, wouldn't he have known in advance that this was going to happen(yes I realize this causes some serious contridictions with free will, but that's a topic for another forum) Unless he wanted an event to happen to "justify" the act of destroying us, why would he plan that to happen. I'm beginning to question the validity of the description of benevolence, and instead rooting for the opposite, the possibility that the "god idea" represented in the Bible is actually one of a malevolent being. Any thoughts, or comments, my fellow atheists and any rouge theists?