Hey Guys, First post. I have been an atheist for a long time now, since leaving Christianity. I still read the bible occasionally, because I believe unless we know what it says, then we can't build a strong defense against it. I'm sure the title of this thread got a lot of eye rolls, because it is obviously a cliche question. Christians never have a good answer for it and it seems like a trumper of a question. Here's the thing though. I was reading the bible earlier this week, and came across a passage in Matthew. It made me pause, and then wonder if "Why doesn't god heal amputees" can no longer be used as a trump card.
Here's why. When the question is posed, it is usually meant in other words, "why doesn't go heal those who are missing limbs". This is according to the current definition of "amputee".
1910, perhaps on a French model; see amputation
1610s, "a cutting off of tree branches, a pruning," also "operation of cutting off a limb, etc., of a body," from Middle French amputation or directly from Latin amputationem (nominative amputatio), noun of action from past-participle stem of amputare "to cut off, lop off; cut around, to prune," from am(bi)- "around" (from PIE root *ambhi- "around") + putare "to prune, trim" (from PIE root *pau- (2) "to cut, strike, stamp").
So the word amputation officially became part of our language in the early 1600s, and amputee, even later than that. But of course people have been missing limbs since the beginning of humanity, so what was the word they used prior to amputation/amputee.
The word "maim" appears throughout the bible.
verb (used with object)
1) to deprive of the use of some part of the body by wounding or the like; cripple:
2) to impair; make essentially defective:
1) a physical injury, especially a loss of a limb.
2) an injury or defect; blemish; lack.
In Greek, (early translation of the Hebrew biblical texts) the words "Kullos" and "Cholos" are used, and these words both refer to maiming, or losing a limb. So it seems the bible does mention amputees.
Matthew 5:30-31 (KJV) "And great multitudes came unto him, having with them those that were lame, blind, dumb, maimed, and many others, and cast them down at Jesus' feet; and he healed them: Insomuch that the multitude wondered, when they saw the dumb to speak, the maimed to be whole, the lame to walk, and the blind to see: and they glorified the God of Israel."
This passage says Jesus healed this group of men, including the maimed and made them whole.
So dear fellow atheists. What can be made of this? Do we have to give up using the 'Amputee's Dilemma' once and for all?
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